rastacourage92
06-22-2017, 03:40 AM
According to Geno 2.0, my results are as follows:
65% Jewish Diaspora
14% Northwestern European
13% Southwestern European
4% Northeastern European
2% Eastern European
According to Geno 2.0, these results are from 500-10,000 years ago - but do these results consist of more recent lineages prior to 500 years ago? I can ascertain that both sides of my family are Jewish (Polish and Ukraine, on my father and mother's sides respectively) up until late 1700s, but all is lost after that. Consequently, I would have expected to be significantly higher in the Eastern Europe and Northeastern categories (as I should have significant Polish/Ukrainian/Russian ancestry). Why would these stats be so low, and the Southwestern/Northwestern European ancestry far higher than I would have expected? Could Southwest Europe be signaling Sephardic roots? Does my haplotype group (mtDNA T1A1K) provide any further insight? I'd love some help trying to understand these interesting results!:)
65% Jewish Diaspora
14% Northwestern European
13% Southwestern European
4% Northeastern European
2% Eastern European
According to Geno 2.0, these results are from 500-10,000 years ago - but do these results consist of more recent lineages prior to 500 years ago? I can ascertain that both sides of my family are Jewish (Polish and Ukraine, on my father and mother's sides respectively) up until late 1700s, but all is lost after that. Consequently, I would have expected to be significantly higher in the Eastern Europe and Northeastern categories (as I should have significant Polish/Ukrainian/Russian ancestry). Why would these stats be so low, and the Southwestern/Northwestern European ancestry far higher than I would have expected? Could Southwest Europe be signaling Sephardic roots? Does my haplotype group (mtDNA T1A1K) provide any further insight? I'd love some help trying to understand these interesting results!:)