subzero85
06-30-2020, 02:15 PM
My intuition has me concluding that J2 is substantially more geographically widespread than J1 and possibly exceeds its total population by a large amount. J2 seems to be better represented in both Europe and Asia for example.
What is causing this?
Did J2 men luck out with historical conditions like climate that enabled them to grow more rapidly? Especially given that its associated with the spread of agriculture.
What is causing this?
Did J2 men luck out with historical conditions like climate that enabled them to grow more rapidly? Especially given that its associated with the spread of agriculture.