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    Exclamation Confused about k1a1b1a

    My maternal line hits a brick wall six generations back with a woman born circa 1834 in Tennessee, but I have no Ashkenazi ancestry or Jewish ancestors as far as I can tell.

    Apparently k1a1b1a descend from pre-historic European women whose descendants married Jewish men from the Levant as they migrated into Europe, founding the Ashkenazi community. As a non-Jewish k1a1b1a myself, does this mean an ancient maternal ancestor of mine was a European woman with ostensibly European descendants, making me a distant 'cousin' of the Ashkenazim who seem to be overwhelmingly k1a1b1a, or does this specific mutation mean a more recent maternal ancestor was an Ashkenazi woman? In other words, is K an ancient European haplogroup and k1a1b1a a more recent Ashkenazi haplotype? What are the odds of overlapping?

    From what I can tell, k1a1b1a is very rare in non-Ashkenazim, but it does happen. Am I just an exception to the rule? Is it a coincidence that I share a haplotype with a major Jewish subclade? What do the specific mutations in my K-lineage mean, exactly? I realize the jury is still out on this, and that Behar, Costa, et. al. are at odds with their conclusions (European origin vs. Levantine origin), but I'd appreciate any light that can be shed for curiosity's sake.
    Last edited by raschau; 06-08-2017 at 11:36 PM.

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