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Thread: Why there's no efforts in grouping indo-europeans languages with new worlds languages

  1. #1
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    Cool Why there's no efforts in grouping indo-europeans languages with new worlds languages

    Considering the strong connection between Y-dna and languages.

    It's reasonable to conjecture that PIE havs somethings in common with native american languages.

    But I cant see any efforts to link the two brother haplogroups together.

    On the other hands some scholars speculate chinese and Da-nene languages.

    It's too weird.

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    The connection between languages and Y-DNA is not strong actually. Also these separate topics, mixing them together usually ends up with is a bunch of speculations and fantasies.

    You can acknowledge them in the same topic, but using one to prove the origins of the other and vise versa is not valid imo.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Tomasso29 View Post
    The connection between languages and Y-DNA is not strong actually. Also these separate topics, mixing them together usually ends up with is a bunch of speculations and fantasies.

    You can acknowledge them in the same topic, but using one to prove the origins of the other and vise versa is not valid imo.
    at least some tracable similarities should be found,maybe some substratums

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    The Borean family, accepted by almost no one, unites Indo-European, Amerind, and umpteen other groups.

    Even if there were a clear relation between Y DNA and language relationship, why should it be detectable after tens of thousands of years? Languages do not change in the same way as chromosomes. Native American languages ought to be largely or entirely related at the time depth of around 15 000 years, and of course more closely related to each other than to Indo-European or any other Old World family - based on not just Y DNA but a genome-wide population bottleneck. But they are divided into over a hundred families which cannot be shown to be related. The amount of language change over time has just been too great.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Megalophias View Post
    The Borean family, accepted by almost no one, unites Indo-European, Amerind, and umpteen other groups.

    Even if there were a clear relation between Y DNA and language relationship, why should it be detectable after tens of thousands of years? Languages do not change in the same way as chromosomes. Native American languages ought to be largely or entirely related at the time depth of around 15 000 years, and of course more closely related to each other than to Indo-European or any other Old World family - based on not just Y DNA but a genome-wide population bottleneck. But they are divided into over a hundred families which cannot be shown to be related. The amount of language change over time has just been too great.
    Borean is tooooo large,is there any smaller superfamily?

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