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Thread: ***Big News*** - Basal and North Eurasian split in South Asia; No Aryan Migration

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  2. #12
    Quote Originally Posted by Philjames View Post
    I believe the paper is wrong in many places.

    I know for most average people who dont spend much time looking into this, it's hard to accept that some guy on the net COULD know more than Harvard. It's a tough spot for people who believe in authority/the establishment.

    I know this, and I didnt really post this as an attempt to change anyones mind, but to get feedback on my 'findings'.

  3. #13
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    Quote Originally Posted by beyondAtheism View Post
    I know for most average people who dont spend much time looking into this, it's hard to accept that some guy on the net COULD know more than Harvard. It's a tough spot for people who believe in authority/the establishment.
    Did you, uh, consider the alternative hypothesis that you might in fact know less than Harvard?

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  5. #14
    Quote Originally Posted by Megalophias View Post
    Did you, uh, consider the alternative hypothesis that you might in fact know less than Harvard?
    Considered, tested, and rejected.

    Harvard simply assume ANE was unrelated to South Asians after the out of Africa event. Their work assumes there was no out of africa shared drift between South Asians and ANE. Or between Basal and North Eurasians.

    Hence, Aryan Migration theory will never have a phylogeny for Eurasians after leaving Africa.

    They only have chaos, violence, and takeovers by unrelated peoples, to explain current relatedness. We have a tree of relatedness, a real phylogenetic tree.
    Last edited by beyondAtheism; 06-16-2020 at 05:06 PM.

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    Oh dear.

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  8. #16
    I'm not blaming Harvard or any scientists specifically, the problem is much higher than them, they are just pleasing their paymasters.

    But when the King is found out for having no clothes, the house of cards comes crashing down, and then something real can be built in it's place.
    Last edited by beyondAtheism; 06-16-2020 at 05:14 PM.

  9. #17
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    Quote Originally Posted by beyondAtheism View Post
    Hi,

    I can show that South Asia is the root of the tree for most Eurasians out of Africa.

    I know there has been a lot of speculation regarding an Indo European migration into South Asia. This is currently refuted as it can be seen that South Asia is the root of the tree for Eurasians after they left Africa, so this explains the EHG and ANE affinity of Northern South Asians. Further, there is significant West Asian Farmer (Iranian, Anatolian, CHG, Balochi) DNA in Bronze Age steppe groups such as Yamnaya, Afanasievo, Maikop compared with EHG, AG3, Botai, MA1. Therefore, it is strongly refuted that IE originated in the steppe.


    Basal and North Eurasians are derived from South Asia

    I have been looking at this for a long time and can show this in different ways, but this is the simplest way of looking at it.

    In the 1240K HO db there are two Andaman Island samples, Ong and Jarawa. We assume they are the closest to the first Eurasians outside of Africa. We then compare the affinity of all Eurasians to these two, vs each other. We find that Basal Eurasian is on one end of the spectrum, the one closest to Jarawa vs Ong, and ANE/East Asian are on the other end, closest to Ong.


    All other groups are in the middle, so we can see that the Basal and North Eurasian split occurred very early and effects every sample, even the oldest one we have, Ust Ishim, at 45Ky. We can place every Eurasian smoothly on this 'cline', thus defining their position in the Basal vs North Eurasian spectrum.

    d(Jarawa, Ong; Pop;Yoruba)

    Attachment 38022

    This is not great though, as the standard error tells us. So, I reformulated the query.

    d(Yoruba, Jarawa; Pop, Ong)

    Attachment 38023

    The smooth gradient of affinity shows that this must stem from the earliest populations that split into Basal and North Eurasian. Clearly, this must be rooted in the earliest populations of South Asia, as that is the only place where West and North Eurasian can converge geographically. Further, modern South Asians are closer to Jarawa in the West and Ong in the East, preserving to some extent this cline to the present.

    It is likely, in my opinion, that this is due to early South Asians populations being split between East and West, with the Western population based around the Baluchistan/Sind/Gujarat area and the other cluster more towards the East and North.

    Indo European

    The above explains the affinity of (Northern) South Asians to ANE, and by proxy to Bronze Age steppe groups. There is little evidence remaining for the Aryan Migration theory. South Asia has very diverse Eurasian Y-DNA HGs due to being at the root of the tree.

    Furthermore, there is lots of West Asian farmer DNA in IE steppe groups, more than ANE in Iranians. This is clear to see, so I wont post data on it here
    .
    Very ancient ANE/MA1 affinity does not mean much if at all with population movements which occur 3.2-4Kya from Central Asia via IIr related groups, there is a huge linguistic aspect to this as well which you are conveniently ignoring .

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  11. #18
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    Quote Originally Posted by beyondAtheism View Post
    I know for most average people who dont spend much time looking into this, it's hard to accept that some guy on the net COULD know more than Harvard. It's a tough spot for people who believe in authority/the establishment.
    No, that's not hard for me to accept. There's another guy on Youtube who has proven that the entire scientific community is involved in a vast conspiracy and that the Earth is actually flat.

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    This is a huge nothingburger. The first image you posted shows that basically all the stats are not statistically significantly different from zero. The second and third images (the "trend") again, all the stats are definitely not significantly different from zero (all z scores close to 0.05) and, with all the "wrong placements" that there isn't even any trend. In fact you're trying to say that there are statistically significant differences between the populations that form a trend, and given the prior lack of difference from zero there is almost no signal to prove anything really.
    Quoted from this Forum:

    "Which superman haplogroup is the toughest - R1a or R1b? And which SNP mutation spoke Indo-European first? There's only one way for us to find out ... fight!"

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  15. #20
    Quote Originally Posted by pegasus View Post
    Very ancient ANE/MA1 affinity does not mean much if at all with population movements which occur 3.2-4Kya from Central Asia via IIr related groups, there is a huge linguistic aspect to this as well which you are conveniently ignoring .
    I don't wanna go off-topic here. You can watch me video, which has a section on liguistics, talking about the topic and comment there.



    Also, a good video, again pls keep comments on YT and off this thread.



    Bear in mind, both videos were made some time ago and hence need updating, but to answer your question about linguistics that video is still good.

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