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Thread: Baltic languages: a short question.

  1. #21
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    Quote Originally Posted by Onur Dincer View Post
    Read some Byzantine history. Specifically focus on the late 6th and early 7th centuries. The Slavic invasion of the Balkans had already started by the late 6th century but was halted by the Byzantines for a short time until resuming in the early 7th century.

    No new toponyms have been identified by linguists at the 6th-7th centuries. There is no new language and no new people. These are only old tribes who left their lands temporarily due to Roman invasions and returned after their lands were liberated with the help of the free northern Slavs-The Getae.
    But we have new toponyms after the arrival of the Ottomans. How do you explain that?
    I think and the new DNA here will be pointed easily.

  2. #22
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    Quote Originally Posted by Onur Dincer View Post
    We already have some ancient genomes from the Iron Age Balkans and also genomes from early medieval Slavs from what are now Czechia and Hungary, they are on Global25, you can analyze them and compare them to the modern populations of the Balkans. Modern Balkan populations are in general modeled well as a mixture of Iron Age Balkan populations and early medieval Slavs or modern Northern Slavs.
    About Hungary I know, it is a historical fact too who was there before. The pannonians.
    What exactly modern Northern Slavs has to do with an old Balkan language showing a direct connection with the Thracian?!

    You somehow missed the most important fact and that is the analytical nature in only one language in the group. Which means it's the oldest of them all.
    in 1945, Academician N.S. Derzhavin expressed the idea that the analytical type of the modern Bulgarian language is its archaic feature, and does not represent a transition from syntheticism to analyticism: “Compared to the Russian language,
    the modern Bulgarian language is distinguished by the archaicness of its lexical composition and grammatical structure.
    Last edited by DgidguBidgu; 09-16-2020 at 03:10 PM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by DgidguBidgu View Post
    No new toponyms have been identified by linguists at the 6th-7th centuries. There is no new language and no new people. These are only old tribes who left their lands temporarily due to Roman invasions and returned after their lands were liberated with the help of the free northern Slavs-The Getae.
    But we have new toponyms after the arrival of the Ottomans. How do you explain that?
    I think and the new DNA here will be pointed easily.
    Are you sure about the toponyms? The Balkans is full of Slavic toponyms, which appear first beginning from the Slavic invasions during the 7th century AD. My maternal ancestral lands in the Balkans, for instance, are full of such Slavic toponyms. They are never attested before the Slavic invasions.
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    Quote Originally Posted by DgidguBidgu View Post
    About Hungary I know, it is a historical fact too who was there before. The pannonians.
    What exactly modern Northern Slavs has to do with an old Balkan language showing a direct connection with the Thracian?!
    I do not associate the Slavic languages with the old Balkan languages, you do. It is not my problem.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Onur Dincer View Post
    Are you sure about the toponyms? The Balkans is full of Slavic toponyms, which appear first beginning from the Slavic invasions during the 7th century AD. My maternal ancestral lands in the Balkans, for instance, are full of such Slavic toponyms. They are never attested before the Slavic invasions.
    If I understand you correctly, do you think there was no Slavic migration in the 7th century, not honestly. They were newcomers from Central Eastern Europe, only the Getae were, so to speak, autochthonous, but to be honest you don't know much about their exact ethnogenesis, I've already heard a theory that Slavs migrated from the Balkans to Central Eastern Europe, which of course is not true and does not agree archaeological findings and chronicles.
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  8. #26
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    Onur Dincer :"Thracian is connected by some linguists to the Baltic languages specifically within the Balto-Slavic family, that means the connection, if real, probably postdates the split of Baltic and Slavic and also indicates that Thracian does not form a clade with Slavic within the Balto-Slavic languages but with Baltic instead."

    Jan Holst formulated the radical hypothesis that Thracian could even be a Baltic language. See for example his contribution to "CONTACTS BETWEEN THE BALTIC AND FINNIC LANGUAGES" (Junttila edited ) https://journal.fi/uralicahelsingien...wnload/uh7/uh7

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  10. #27
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    Quote Originally Posted by Onur Dincer View Post
    Who associates them with Slavic? Can you give some sources?

    J. W. Donaldson and S.F. Dunlap, but as I can see they are not alone, especially after and Wikipedia started to see such a connection.
    Of course, older authors and historical references such as:
    "Sclavos sive Getas: hoc enim nomine antiquitus appellati sunt."These are actually the first to bear this name. And as we well know, the Getae are Thracian tribe . The connection is not Baltic-Thracian. You are walking against the historical facts.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Alain View Post
    If I understand you correctly, do you think there was no Slavic migration in the 7th century, not honestly. They were newcomers from Central Eastern Europe, only the Getae were, so to speak, autochthonous, but to be honest you don't know much about their exact ethnogenesis, I've already heard a theory that Slavs migrated from the Balkans to Central Eastern Europe, which of course is not true and does not agree archaeological findings and chronicles.
    No, it is DgidguBidgu who denies the Slavic invasion of the Balkans, I, on the other hand, state that it is real. You need to use a better translation tool.
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  13. #29
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    Quote Originally Posted by Onur Dincer View Post
    Are you sure about the toponyms? The Balkans is full of Slavic toponyms, which appear first beginning from the Slavic invasions during the 7th century AD. My maternal ancestral lands in the Balkans, for instance, are full of such Slavic toponyms. They are never attested before the Slavic invasions.
    I am sure. If Thracian toponyms can be explained and I mean the etymology of these words in your native language, what does this mean?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Onur Dincer View Post
    No, it is DgidguBidgu who denies the Slavic invasion of the Balkans, I, on the other hand, state that it is real. You need to use a better translation tool.
    I meant DgidguBidgu, not you Onur
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