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Just to be clear, I'm not trying to argue with archaeological specimens. Only with the easy assumption that the "Iberian influence" implied here is genetic, and on the Y chromosome. Because we've all seen those Eupedia heat maps, and have read papers by Calafell et al, and have witnessed the forum effusions of Blas/Gaska (and others in that camp). I've argued with those for years, and feel no need to desist.
Obviously, residents of Narbonne might own products that came from nearby Iberian ports, mines, and cultural horizons. But there's no reason to assume that, therefore, a person buried locally in 2400 BCE, with clear evidence of autosomal steppe (or Yamnaya-leaning) ancestry, got his DF27>Z195 haplogroup from Iberia.
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