
Originally Posted by
Erikl86
While on the face of it, this scenario is of course theoretically plausible, it's unlikely.
First, Ashkenazi Jews have more than 50% occurrence of Middle Eastern Y-DNA; it's closer to 80%.
Second thing is that what this would mean is that the forefathers of Ashkenazi Jews for some reason stopped marrying Middle Eastern Jewish women, or that all Middle Eastern Jewish women simply died out - and we have no recollection of that.
And third, the scenario you lay down here requires that the acceptance of converts would be on the same rate as it was in the heyday of Judaism's popularity in the 2nd century BCE - 1st/2nd centuries CE, while we know that especially after Hadrian's decrees and soon after the Christianization of the Empire, the feasibility of accepting converts from the Mediterranean basin has declined sharply.
It's more likely Ashkenazi Jews (and Western Jews in general) do have significant Middle Eastern ancestry, probably no less than 35% if one is to play with several autosomal models.