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Thread: Can someone answer something for me really quickly in relation to South Asia?

  1. #81
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    I believe the Moorjani paper found the ANI had no common ancestry with West Eurasian groups in the last 12,500 years. Hasn't the modern white European phenotype range arisen in the time much later than that? I thought there was selection towards pale skin and colored eyes after all the ENF and ANE made their way into WHG territory. Before that there were different sets of phenotypes.

    So I think it would be a fallacy to attribute any phenotype to someone 100% ANI (before the mixture period with ASI) and likewise with ASI. The ANI may be relatively closer related to the West Eurasian but still too distant to effectively have a phenotype that has current depictions among modern West Eurasian populations.

    The current range of Indian phenotypes have evolved after the vigorous mixing of ANI/ASI populations that itself became the core South Asian. Just like the current range of European phenotypes evolved after genetically different groups mixed around and stabilized.

    Basically I am against looking at Indian subcontinent (or anywhere in the Africa/ Eurasia) in a Latin American model of some sort. The latter is what we see in the historical period, hence we are more familiar with that (an African and European produce mulatto features, a native and European produce mestizo features, a mulatto and native produce some other features, etc etc). In this New World model we clearly have different phenotypes associated with different genetically stabilized admixed original populations from different geographical origins, hence we start attributing the admixed phenotypes to the real admixed genetics. However the model doesn't work the same way for the Old World.

    It can be that the 100% ASI had features that would be considered Australoid today, and 100% ANI also had the same. Their mixed genepool in the particular proportion in Northwest part began showing phenotypes that would be considered more Caucasian (feature developed after the mixing). Also it can also be that the features might not have much to do with percentages of ANI but more with later West Eurasian stabilized inputs (post the 12500 years separation of ANI from other West Eurasians). Beyond the core South Asian base that we have with ANI/ASI, you can have some component up to 5-6% or even more if you are completely isolated tribe in a corner of the subcontinent somewhere from the historical period (PIE, Greeks, Persians, Scythians, Tocharians, Turks, Mongols, etc). You never know if that component is playing a part in shifting one's phenotype further away from the generic Indian phenotype range.

  2. The Following User Says Thank You to redifflal For This Useful Post:

     DMXX (10-18-2015)

  3. #82
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    At this point, we've deviated substantially from the original question posed by Skyfall. The current discussion is interesting but falls outside of this thread's original focus and this section (Human Personal & Genealogical Genetics -> General).

    I'll be splitting the OT into another thread shortly and will consider closing this thread, since the original points were addressed by Skyfall. If they can give this post a "thanks" to confirm they're fine with this, that would be very much appreciated.

    [Edit]: Please find the split here. Thank you all.

  4. The Following 2 Users Say Thank You to DMXX For This Useful Post:

     paulgill (10-18-2015),  Skyfall (10-18-2015)

  5. #83
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    I agree, since all my points have been suitably addressed and my questions have been answered, I think that this thread has reached the end of its lifespan. We should close it ceremoniously. My last three posts nicely summarized all the main findings/points related to South Asian archaeogenetics that I had initially sought to understand. Thanks again everyone (DMXX included)!
    Last edited by Skyfall; 10-18-2015 at 06:58 PM.

  6. The Following User Says Thank You to Skyfall For This Useful Post:

     DMXX (10-18-2015)

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